I am a practice manager working for a GP for the past 16 years. When I was made practice manager four years ago I was given six weeks holiday. My employer now feels that she was wrong in giving me six weeks holiday and would like to change it to four weeks.
She also feels that as she is too busy to have a holiday it is unfair for me to have six weeks! I have never had a contract of employment although I have requested this many times. I understand that although there is not in a written contract, it is still binding as a verbel contract. Is this correct?
Can an employer insist that you take half of your entitlement of holiday from April-September and the other half from October-March?