Hi All,

This is my first post on this site so hopefully I am posting in the correct place. We currently have an employee who was feeling unwell and was a little on and off with working for a week or so until she was sent to the doctor who advised her of a potential stroke recently happening. She then returned to work a few days later and asked if it would be possible for her to work mornings only which we agreed to (this commenced on 21st Feb). On the 24th Feb we received an email from her to advise that she had been signed off work by her GP for 1 month with the date of assessment stating it was from the 16th, however the note was signed the 23rd Feb. I am aware that sick notes can be backdated but surely something cannot be backdated for a period when the employee was in fact working for some of it? We therefore put together a sickness pay scheme for this employee as from 23rd Feb and let her know that we will see her back on the 24th unless anything else changes.
She has since spoken with her GP and asked for clarification on the sick note as she was under the impression that it would be 1 month as from 16th to which the GP confirmed this is the case (!?). We are now very confused!

Does anyone have any experience of this/have any advice?

Many thanks

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